When you read the book of Hosea you may be surprised to see in chapter 1, verse 2, the Lord commanding Hosea to "go take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms". As mentioned in the Introduction to Hosea, infidelity was a sensitive subject with the Lord. He had made a covenant with Israel to be their God and they would be His chosen people. Again, we are reminded of the bride and the bridegroom relationship. Only, this is the perfect bridegroom we're talking about. The one bridegroom in all of history that does not deserve to be neglected. He had done so much for Israel yet they still sought other gods. So was Hosea really commanded to marry a wife of whoredoms?
Sidney B. Sperry said "The Lord's call to Hosea to take a harlotrous woman to wife represents the prophet's call to the ministry - a ministry to an apostate and covenant-breaking people. The evil children of this apparent union represent the coming of the judgments of the Lord upon Israel, warning of which was to be carried to the people by the prophet.
So I think it's pretty clear the Lord would never give instructions for His prophets to do things that are immoral. Symbolically, Hosea's wife represented the disloyal and harlotrous Israel that he saw in his day and he was called to be the voice of warning to them.
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